Arsip Blog
Minggu, 19 Februari 2017
EXAMINATION : ELECTRICAL AUTOMATION
1. PT-100 sensors are some times used with 3 or even 4 wires. What is the reason for this?
Higher measuring accuracy.
2. In the diagram below we want to verify the resistance of the PT100 sensor. What is the correct calculation?
R(Pt100) = R1 - R2
3. In some cases we can see that a resistor is connected over an alarm contact (see diagram). Why is this connection used?
To monitor the cable/wires for break.
4. Please indicate the correct sequence of action to take place in an alarm/monitoring and safety system.
Alarm, st.by start, slowdown. Shutdown
5. What is an A/D and a D/A converter?
A converter that converts an analogue signal to a digital signal and vice versa.
6. Which of the 3 alternatives below is giving an OR-function?
Figure 2.
7. What is an I/P Transducer?
A transducer that converts a known electric current to a pressure proportional to the current.
8. Which of the 3 alternatives given is correct for a NOT-gate?
Figure 1.
9. Which of the 3 alternatives given is correct for an AND-gate?
Figure 3.
10. When calibrating an pressure transducer we have to adjust both SPAN and ZERO. Please indicate in which order these adjustments should be done.
First Zero adjustment and the Span adjustment. Then Zero should be rechecked.
11. In a PID controller we have possibility to change the setting of the Proportional band (P), the Reset time (1) and the Rate time (D). Please indicate which curve shows the typical response to change in demand if the setting of the proportional band is too wide.
Figure 1.
12. In a PID controller we have possibility to change the setting of the Proportional band (P), the Reset time (I) and the Rate time (D). Please indicate which curve shows the typical response to change in demand if the setting of the reset time is too fast.
Figure 3.
13. n a PID controller we have possibility to change the setting of the Proportional band (P), the Reset time (I) and the Rate time (D). Please indicate which curve shows the typical response to change in demand if the setting of the rate time is too short.
Figure 2.
14. Earthing of signal cables. Which of the 4 alternatives is correct for a cable for analogue signals?
Figure 1.
15. In a fresh water tank with a height of 5 meters we shall use a pressure transmitter for level measurement. The tank has a vent-pipe leading to deck 8 meters above the top of the tank. What pressure shall we use as a guidance when ordering the pressure transducer?
1,3 Bar.
16. In a fresh water tank we are using a pressure transmitter with a range of 0-0.5 bar / 4-20mA for level measurement. The transmitter is for different reasons installed 30 centimeters from the bottom of the tank, and the tank is 5 meters high. What will the output from the transmitter be when the tank is full? (Pending no calibration is made)
18,8 mA.
17. In a fresh water tank we are using a pressure transmitter with a range of 0-0.5 bar/4-20mA for level measurement.The transmitter is for different reasons installed 30 centimeters from the bottom of the tank,and the tank is 5 meters high. What will the output from the transmitter be when the tank is empty?
4 mA.
18. What is the signal we measure out from a NiCr/Ni thermocouple?
mV.
19. In connection with exhausts gas measurement with a thermocouple we are normally using an amplifier which gives a mA-signal out. Why is this done?
The signal out from a thermocouple is mV,and can not be transferred over any longer distance without loss of voltage, giving a very bad accuracy.
20. Which of the 4 alternatives shows a PNP transistor?
Figure 2.
21. Which of the 4 alternatives shows a NPN transistor?
Figure 3.
22. Due to the relative low resistance of a Pt 100 sensor we might have to compensate for the cable-resistance to ensure a correct reading. Which of the 4 alternatives given is correct for the connection of this compensation resistance.
Figure 3.
23. When the cable length from the temperature sensor to the place where we want to read the temperature exceeds approx. 10 meters we normally have to, in case of a Pt 100, in some way compensate for the cable resistance. Do we also have to do this if we choose to use a T802 temperature sensor?
No
24. Some equipment may be marked with the following symbol: What does that mean?
Intrinsically safe.
25. In installations of INTRINSICALLY SAFE equipment it is required that all equipment should be separated from non-intrinsically safe equipment, and to be of a special colour. What colour is that?
Blue
26. What is this?
A zener barrier. (Positive)
27. What is a ZENER BARRIER?
A zener barrier is a unit made to obtain intrinsically safety in installations for instrumentation in hazardous areas.
28. Can a ZENER BARRIER be installed in an hazardous area?
No, as only the output from the barrier is intrinsically safe this is not allowed.
29. What is the difference between a THERMOSTAT and a TEMPERATURE TRANSMITTER, if any?
The thermostat has one or more contacts (open or closed) depending on the temperature/setting. The temperature transmitter converts a temperature signal to an electric signal.
30. What is the difference between a PRESSURE SWITCH and a PRESSURE TRANSMITTER, if any?
The pressure switch has contact(s) that will change between open and closed position.The pressure transmitter converts a pressure signal into an electric signal.
31. What is the symbol for a THYRISTOR?
Figure 2.
32. What is the definition of DEAD BAND?
The change needed in the input signal to produce a change in the output signal.
33. What is an analogous signal?
A variable electric signal.
34. What is digital signal?
A signal representing 0 = "low" and 1 = "High"
35. What is Hz the abbreviation for?
Frequency in an Alternating Current (AC)
36. P = U x I x Root of 3) x cos (fi) What is the formula for I ?
Formula 1
37. Which alternative is correct for measuring current over the load L?
Figure 3.
38. Temperature sensors may be marked Pt 100. What does it mean?
100 ohm at 0° C
39. Temperature sensors may be marked T 802. What does it mean?
802 ohm at 20° C
40. What is the most common signal from an I/P converter?
4-20mA/3-15 PSI
41. Which method is best for determining earth failure on a 24 VDC power supply?
A lamp, (0-50 mA) and a mA-meter in series.
42. Which statement is correct with regards to power supply for equipment supplied through Zener-barriers?
The 0-voltage must always be grounded.
EXAMINATION : ELECTRO
1. Choose the group of electrical power supplies that best fits the identification of "Mains"
No. 1 diesel and No. 2 diesel
2. Which group of electrical services are likely to be supplied from an emergency generator?
Steering gear and alarm system
3. After main power is restored, a timed sequential restart of motor-driven auxilliaries is necessary to avoid:
Generator overload due to many motors starting at simultaneously
4. Choose the group of electrical power supplies that best fits the identification of "Emergency"
Emergency diesel and batteries
5. An electrical power emergency source in a ship is required because:
It satisfies the SOLAS requirements for ship safety
6. When a blackout occurs: what should be your first reaction?
Inform the bridge about the reason for blackout, and expected time to restart.
7. A 3-phase induction motor is rated at 200 A.Its initial direct- on-line starting current will be approximately:
1000 A
8. The earth lamps in a 3-phase system indicate as follows: Red= bright Yellow= dark Blue= dim
no fault - hard earth - light earth
9. An earth fault exists on the blue line of a 100 A bilge pump circuit. A second earth fault occurs on the yellow line of a 10 A ventilation fan circuit. The likely outcome is that:
A short circuit occurs between earth faults and the ventilation fan fuse blows
10. A ships 3 - phase a.c. circuit has 440 V and 220 V transformer linked sections. The effect of a single earth fault on a 220 V line will cause the following earth lamp indication:
In 440 V section: Two lamps bright. In 220 V section: Two lamps bright.
11. The insulation resistance (IR) to earth of a new galley hot-plate is measured to be 30 Mohm. When three identical hot-plates are tested together their combined IR will be:
10 Mohm
12. A motor is protected by a thermal overcurrent relay. After tripping on overload it will not be possible to reset the overcurrent relay because the:
Bimetallic strips need time to cool down
13. A 3-phase A.C. induction motor is running normally at its rated current of 150 A when a single phasing fault (open circuit) occurs in one line. The likely outcome will be:
Line currents: 0 A, 180 A, 180 A. Trip condition: trip on overload.
14. The function of the fuses in a motor starter circuit is to provide:
Short circuit protection.
15. "Protective discrimination" means the progressive grading of sizes/tripping times of:
Line fuses and overcurrent relays
16. If the A.C. line current in a generator is doubled, the heating effect in the stator windings will:
Quadruple
17. When a large motor load suddenly is disconnected from the switchboard and the genarator is AVR controlled, the voltage will:
Initially rise, then reset to the set value.
18. Under normal conditions, the electric power for services supplied from the emergency switchboard is supplied from:
The main diesel generator or shaft generator.
19. Regular (at least weekly) testing of the emergency generator must be performed to check:
Its readiness to perform as specified.
20. Unloading a generator, it is necessary to gradually decrease the load in order to avoid:
Undue overspeeding.
21. The internal e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of an a.c. generator is controlled by:
The diesel speed and excitation current.
22. A 10% reduction in generator speed occurs due to a faulty governor. The likely consequence for each motor powered from this generator is to:
Reduce motor speed by about 10%
23. The pair of instruments necessary for generator synchronising are:
Voltmeter and synchroscope
24. Prior to synchronising, the generator voltage and frequency are respectively controlled by:
AVR and speed governor
25. For ideal synchronising, the phase angle difference between the incomer e.m.f. and the busbar voltage should be:
0°
26. During synchronising, the incoming generator should be running slightly "fast" compared to the busbar frequency.This is to ensure that the:
Incomer picks up as a generator
27. The correct time to synchronise is usually taken to be when the synchroscope reaches the "5 to 12" position. This to allow for:
Circuit breaker operating time
28. After successful synchronising the kW and kVar loading are respectively transfered by the following controls:
Speed governor and voltage regulator
29. For two generators running in parallel, their share of additional load (kW) will be determined by the:
Governor droop settings on each prime mover
30. Generator 1 and 2 are working in parallel. Prime-mover 2 suffers a total fuel loss. The likely outcome is:
No.2 generator trips on reverse power
31. It is possible to operate two similar generators in parallel at equal power (kW) but at different power factors. The generator with lower power factor will cause it to run:
Hotter due to increased current
32. Check-synchroniser equipment is often installed to:
Prevent manual synchronising outside permitted limits
No. 1 diesel and No. 2 diesel
2. Which group of electrical services are likely to be supplied from an emergency generator?
Steering gear and alarm system
3. After main power is restored, a timed sequential restart of motor-driven auxilliaries is necessary to avoid:
Generator overload due to many motors starting at simultaneously
4. Choose the group of electrical power supplies that best fits the identification of "Emergency"
Emergency diesel and batteries
5. An electrical power emergency source in a ship is required because:
It satisfies the SOLAS requirements for ship safety
6. When a blackout occurs: what should be your first reaction?
Inform the bridge about the reason for blackout, and expected time to restart.
7. A 3-phase induction motor is rated at 200 A.Its initial direct- on-line starting current will be approximately:
1000 A
8. The earth lamps in a 3-phase system indicate as follows: Red= bright Yellow= dark Blue= dim
no fault - hard earth - light earth
9. An earth fault exists on the blue line of a 100 A bilge pump circuit. A second earth fault occurs on the yellow line of a 10 A ventilation fan circuit. The likely outcome is that:
A short circuit occurs between earth faults and the ventilation fan fuse blows
10. A ships 3 - phase a.c. circuit has 440 V and 220 V transformer linked sections. The effect of a single earth fault on a 220 V line will cause the following earth lamp indication:
In 440 V section: Two lamps bright. In 220 V section: Two lamps bright.
11. The insulation resistance (IR) to earth of a new galley hot-plate is measured to be 30 Mohm. When three identical hot-plates are tested together their combined IR will be:
10 Mohm
12. A motor is protected by a thermal overcurrent relay. After tripping on overload it will not be possible to reset the overcurrent relay because the:
Bimetallic strips need time to cool down
13. A 3-phase A.C. induction motor is running normally at its rated current of 150 A when a single phasing fault (open circuit) occurs in one line. The likely outcome will be:
Line currents: 0 A, 180 A, 180 A. Trip condition: trip on overload.
14. The function of the fuses in a motor starter circuit is to provide:
Short circuit protection.
15. "Protective discrimination" means the progressive grading of sizes/tripping times of:
Line fuses and overcurrent relays
16. If the A.C. line current in a generator is doubled, the heating effect in the stator windings will:
Quadruple
17. When a large motor load suddenly is disconnected from the switchboard and the genarator is AVR controlled, the voltage will:
Initially rise, then reset to the set value.
18. Under normal conditions, the electric power for services supplied from the emergency switchboard is supplied from:
The main diesel generator or shaft generator.
19. Regular (at least weekly) testing of the emergency generator must be performed to check:
Its readiness to perform as specified.
20. Unloading a generator, it is necessary to gradually decrease the load in order to avoid:
Undue overspeeding.
21. The internal e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of an a.c. generator is controlled by:
The diesel speed and excitation current.
22. A 10% reduction in generator speed occurs due to a faulty governor. The likely consequence for each motor powered from this generator is to:
Reduce motor speed by about 10%
23. The pair of instruments necessary for generator synchronising are:
Voltmeter and synchroscope
24. Prior to synchronising, the generator voltage and frequency are respectively controlled by:
AVR and speed governor
25. For ideal synchronising, the phase angle difference between the incomer e.m.f. and the busbar voltage should be:
0°
26. During synchronising, the incoming generator should be running slightly "fast" compared to the busbar frequency.This is to ensure that the:
Incomer picks up as a generator
27. The correct time to synchronise is usually taken to be when the synchroscope reaches the "5 to 12" position. This to allow for:
Circuit breaker operating time
28. After successful synchronising the kW and kVar loading are respectively transfered by the following controls:
Speed governor and voltage regulator
29. For two generators running in parallel, their share of additional load (kW) will be determined by the:
Governor droop settings on each prime mover
30. Generator 1 and 2 are working in parallel. Prime-mover 2 suffers a total fuel loss. The likely outcome is:
No.2 generator trips on reverse power
31. It is possible to operate two similar generators in parallel at equal power (kW) but at different power factors. The generator with lower power factor will cause it to run:
Hotter due to increased current
32. Check-synchroniser equipment is often installed to:
Prevent manual synchronising outside permitted limits
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